Why does Kierkegaard suggest indolence makes ressentiment dangerous?

What is the difference between resentment and ressentiment?

While resentment can occur in any situation of social interaction (including, of course, interpersonal interaction) in which one’s self is assailed by others, ressentiment tends to be induced by more durable, intense, and, on occasion, abstract sources, including social–structural features.

What did Nietzsche think of Kierkegaard?

This is rather odd, as Kierkegaard was self-consciously seeking to be an orthodox Christian, and Nietzsche was self-consciously seeking to destroy Christianity. Once again, Kierkegaard speaks much of spirit and consciousness of spirit/self. Wikipedia claims that Nietzsche said he would read Kierkegaard.

Did Nietzsche ever read Kierkegaard?

Nor did Nietzsche read Kierkegaard. By the end of Nietzsche’s life, it is true, Kierkegaard was becoming known in Germany. In 1879 Georg Brandes published in German his Literary Character-Sketch on Kierkegaard.

Who coined the term ressentiment?

Ressentiment was first introduced as a philosophical/psychological term by the 19th century philosopher Friedrich Nietzsche.

What is the difference between Nietzsche and Kierkegaard?

Kierkegaard’s religiousness emphasizes faith that is in its tension with doubt. The truth in subjectivity is not something that simply exists for all time, but must be wrestled and eventually submitted to. Nietzsche prefers to make truth submit to the will of greatness. Kierkegaard gives over to God.

How are Kierkegaard and Nietzsche similar?

Kierkegaard and Nietzsche both felt that life is irrational. They were problem thinkers who chose not to follow the systematic approach to philosophy as their predecessors did. In this regard, they stood on common ground.

Was Kierkegaard a nihilist?

Søren Kierkegaard (1813–1855): The nineteenth century Danish theologian Søren Kierkegaard—who many academics regard among the first existentialist philosophers—wrote about nihilism, calling it “leveling.” Kierkegaard felt that leveling was not a positive thing, because the problem of nihilism was that it meant …

Was Kierkegaard a Kantian?

In comparison to Kant’s rationalism, Kierkegaard is regarded to be an absurd thinker, who believes in subjectivism of ethics. In fact, Kierkegaard was one of the Kant’s followers. He used Kant’s ideas as a basis for his own inquiry of faith.

Why is Nietzsche the father of existentialism?

Nietzsche’s contribution to existentialism was the idea that men must accept that they are part of a material world, regardless of what else might exist. As part of this world, men must live as if there is nothing else beyond life. A failure to live, to take risks, is a failure to realize human potential.

What did Romanticism and existentialism have in common?

Both existentialism and romanticism have in common a. the importance of subjective experience.

Who is the father of English literature?

Geoffrey Chaucer

Geoffrey Chaucer, the father of English literature, was born in circa 1340 in London. He is most famous for writing his unfinished work, The Canterbury Tales, which is considered as one of the greatest poetic works in English.

What did Rousseau say about Romanticism?

Rousseau ‘s Romanticism was apparent in his visions of a regenerated human nature. He found man to be ultimately good in nature, and that society ‘s influence and pretentiousness are what spoiled man ‘s essential goodness.

What did Nietzsche think of Romanticism?

Nietzsche famously follows Goethe in his verdict that Romanticism is a form of sickness and classicism a form of strength, and commentators, for the most part, have accepted this self-description.

Why Rousseau is known as father of Romanticism?

Jean-Jacques Rousseau wrote his most notable works during the Enlightenment period, but it would be his influence on the next era of artful thinkers which would earn him the title ‘the Father of Romanticism’.

Was Kant a Romantic?

The subject is all. Immanuel Kant (1724-1804), who is arguably the most influential philosopher of Romanticism, reconciles these two tendencies, which he terms an Antinomy between, on the one hand, the intellectual, rational world (the SUBJECT) and, on the other, the spatiotemporal world (the OBJECT).

What is a antinomy paradox?

antinomy, in philosophy, contradiction, real or apparent, between two principles or conclusions, both of which seem equally justified; it is nearly synonymous with the term paradox.

Who said to be is to be perceived?

4. Idealism and Immaterialism. Berkeley’s famous principle is esse is percipi, to be is to be perceived. Berkeley was an idealist.

What do you mean by innate ideas?

innate idea, in philosophy, an idea allegedly inborn in the human mind, as contrasted with those received or compiled from experience.

What is Innatism theory?

Innatism is a philosophical and epistemological doctrine that the mind is born with ideas, knowledge, and beliefs. Therefore, the mind is not a tabula rasa (blank slate) at birth, which contrasts with and was contested by early empiricists such as John Locke.

Why did Locke criticize the innate ideas?

Locke offers another argument against innate knowledge, asserting that human beings cannot have ideas in their minds of which they are not aware, so that people cannot be said to possess even the most basic principles until they are taught them or think them through for themselves.