Possible Logical Error in Euthyphro?

What logical fallacy does Euthyphro make?

The explanation runs in a circle—it commits the fallacy of Begging the Question. Euthyphro effectively claims that acts are pious because the gods love them but that the gods love them because they are pious—which amounts to saying that acts are pious because they are pious, and that is no explanation at all. 1.

What is wrong with Euthyphro?

The Euthyphro Question: “Is an action wrong because God forbids it or does God forbid it because it is wrong?” If the Divine Command Theorist takes this horn, she thereby admits that there is some standard of right and wrong that is independent of God’s will.

What exactly does Euthyphro fail to do in his piety with Socrates?

In the discussion that takes place about piety in relation to justice, Socrates rejects Euthyphro’s distinction between service to the gods and service to people.

What word did Euthyphro have trouble defining?

At the dialogue’s conclusion, Euthyphro is compelled to admit that each of his definitions of “piety” has failed, but, rather than correct his faulty logic, he says that it is time for him to leave, and excuses himself from their dialogue.

Why is the Euthyphro dilemma false?

Again, the Euthyphro dilemma is a false one; the third option that it fails to consider is that what is morally obligatory is what God commands in accordance with a non-arbitrary and unchanging standard of goodness that is not independent of Him… He is not under the moral law precisely because He is the moral law.”

What are the two claims of the Euthyphro dilemma?

5 In its modern iteration, the Euthyphro dilemma works by revealing two unacceptable positions that the Divine Command Theorist must choose between. These two ‘horns’ of the dilemma are that either (1) the command of God identifies morality, or (2) the command of God creates morality.

Is there a solution to the euthyphro dilemma?

One possible response to the Euthyphro Dilemma is to simply accept that if God does command cruelty, then inflicting it upon others would be morally obligatory.

What problem does Socrates question in the Euthyphro raise for divine command theory?

What problem does Socrates’s question in the Euthyphro raise for the Divine Command Theory? If the Divine Command Theory is true, then God’s commands are arbitrary.

What is euthyphro dilemma essay?

Euthyphro Dilemma The Euthyphro dilemma is the impasse that Euthyphro finds himself at the end of a discussion with Socrates. The discussion revolves around Socrates asking Euthyphro what is the nature of piety and impiety, or right and wrong.

What does Socrates conclude from Euthyphro?

Socrates wonders what Euthyphro means by “looking after the gods.” Surely, the gods are omnipotent, and don’t need us to look after them or help them in any way. Euthyphro’s final suggestion is that holiness is a kind of trading with the gods, where we give them sacrifices and they grant our prayers.

What can we learn from Euthyphro?

Euthyphro’s Answer: The Pious is the same as the God- Loved. On this reading, then, the primary aim of the argument is to un- dermine the view that what makes a thing pious is the same as what makes a thing god-loved.

What is the main theme of Euthyphro?

The main theme of the argument being debated in Euthyphro is what constitutes piety. Socrates and the title character are both involved in lawsuits involving accusations of impiety. When Socrates pushes the Sophist to define the term, all he can do is provide examples.

What is wrong with Euthyphro’s second definition of the pious?

the pious is what is dear to the gods. What is wrong with Euthyphro’s second definition of the pious? It leads to a contradiction.

How did Euthyphro define piety?

Definition 1 – Euthyphro. Piety is what the Gods love and Impiety is what the Gods hate. Objections to Definition 1. There are many Gods, whom all may not agree on what particular things are pious or impious. It therefore means that certain acts or deeds could therefore be considered both pious and impious.

Why is Euthyphro’s first definition flawed?

Euthyphro’s original definition was unsatisfying to Socrates because it only identified a certain class of actions that Euthyphro considers holy without providing an overarching definition. This definition, that what is holy is what is agreeable to the gods, works far better for Socrates because of its generality.

What is Socrates objection to the definition Euthyphro has proposed?

-Socrates focuses on the fact that he’s on trial because of improvising and innovating about the gods. What is Socrates’ objection to the definition Euthyphro has proposed? -Socrates’ objection is that pious is not the same and alike in every action; that impious. pious presents us with one form.

Do you think that there is a clear definition of piety that Euthyphro could have presented that would have satisfied Socrates?

Euthyphro offers as his first definition of piety what he is doing now, that is, prosecuting his father for manslaughter. Socrates rejects this because it is not a definition; it is only an example or instance of piety. It does not provide the fundamental characteristic which makes pious things pious.

Why does Socrates reject Euthyphro’s first definition of piety?

Socrates argues that the unanimous approval of the gods is merely an attribute of piety; it is not part of its defining characteristics. It does not define the essence of piety, what piety is in itself; it does not give the idea of piety, so it cannot be a universal definition of ‘piety. ‘

Why do Socrates and Euthyphro reject the definition of piety as what all the gods love?

He thinks this because one action that is pious is giving offerings and sacrifices to the gods, it is pious because the gods like it. Socrates does not think that definition is good because different gods love different things.