How is it possible for an infinite number of moments to have elapsed prior to now?

How is it possible for an infinite number of equal length moments to have elapsed prior to now? It is not possible to have an infinite number of moments of equal length. If each moment has some positive length, then the number of such moments between T and N is finite.

Is it possible to have an infinite past?

Each year is separated from any other by a finite number of years (remember that there’s no first year). There never was a time when the past became infinite because no set can become infinite by adding any finite number of members. So, if the past is infinite, then it has always been infinite.

Can a moment be infinite?

So if the moment “is ∞−∞”, it is indeterminate, so we say it doesn’t exist (the same thing with 1/0 en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indeterminate_form). But if the moment is “∞”, but still not “∞−∞”, then we can at least say that it exists.

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Is it possible that things that are not alive possess conciousness? Is this argument equivalent to the argument of prime mover of Aristotle? What is the difference between Avicenna’s and al-Ghazâlî’s understandings of causality? The intersection of philosophy and commerce? How does abduction differ from inductive reasoning? Is the consciousness currently in oneself the same the the consciousness that used to be or in the future will be in oneself? Absolute Rules in Ethics? What makes possible for people to make claims to knowledge or make claims based on beliefs? The Principle of Explosion v. Reductio ad Absurdum? Why is ontological relativism so hard to digest for many people (philosophers)?